Chartered Investment Manager (CIM) Practice Exam · Question
A portfolio manager has established a strategic asset allocation of 60% equities and 40% fixed income for a client. Due to a significant market rally, the portfolio's current allocation has shifted to 70% equities and 30% fixed income. If the manager rebalances back to the strategic allocation by selling equities and buying fixed income, which rebalancing trigger are they primarily responding to?
Corridor-based rebalancing involves rebalancing the portfolio when an asset class deviates by a certain percentage or absolute amount from its target weight, as
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Question: A portfolio manager has established a strategic asset allocation of 60% equities and 40% fixed income for a client. Due to a significant market rally, the portfolio's current allocation has shifted to 70% equities and 30% fixed income. If the manager rebalances back to the strategic allocation by selling equities and buying fixed income, which rebalancing trigger are they primarily responding to?
Answer options:
- Time-based rebalancing
- Calender-based rebalancing ✅ Corridor-based rebalancing
- Opportunity-based rebalancing
Correct answer: Corridor-based rebalancing
Explanation: Corridor-based rebalancing involves rebalancing the portfolio when an asset class deviates by a certain percentage or absolute amount from its target weight, as evidenced by the 10% drift in equities in this scenario.
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