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IFIC Mutual Funds Licensing Practice Exam · Question

A mutual fund representative is reviewing a client's portfolio, which was initially designed with a fixed asset allocation model consisting of 60% equities and 40% fixed income. Due to a prolonged period of high inflation and rising interest rates, the bond portion of the portfolio has significantly underperformed, while equities have shown modest growth. The client is concerned about the underperformance of their fixed-income assets. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the representative, considering their fiduciary duties under NI 31-103 Client-Focused Reforms?

Under Client-Focused Reforms, the representative has a duty to ensure the suitability of investments. While the original allocation was strategic, significant m

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Question: A mutual fund representative is reviewing a client's portfolio, which was initially designed with a fixed asset allocation model consisting of 60% equities and 40% fixed income. Due to a prolonged period of high inflation and rising interest rates, the bond portion of the portfolio has significantly underperformed, while equities have shown modest growth. The client is concerned about the underperformance of their fixed-income assets. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the representative, considering their fiduciary duties under NI 31-103 Client-Focused Reforms?

Answer options:

  • Advise the client to rebalance to the original 60/40 allocation immediately, as per the established strategic plan, without further consultation. ✅ Discuss with the client the current economic environment, review their risk tolerance, and assess if their strategic asset allocation remains suitable given their financial objectives before making any adjustments.
  • Recommend significantly increasing the equity allocation to compensate for the poor bond performance, believing that equities will continue to outperform.
  • Suggest moving all fixed-income assets into inflation-indexed bonds without exploring other options or confirming suitability.

Correct answer: Discuss with the client the current economic environment, review their risk tolerance, and assess if their strategic asset allocation remains suitable given their financial objectives before making any adjustments.

Explanation: Under Client-Focused Reforms, the representative has a duty to ensure the suitability of investments. While the original allocation was strategic, significant market changes affecting an asset class warrant a discussion with the client. This involves reviewing their current financial objectives, risk tolerance, and overall situation before deciding if the existing strategic allocation remains suitable or if adjustments are needed.

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