First Aid & CPR Practice — Question Explanations
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Standard First Aid & CPR/AED Test at a glance
Administered by Canadian Red Cross / St. John Ambulance / Heart & Stroke · Standard First Aid & CPR/AED
- Authority
- Canadian Red Cross / St. John Ambulance / Heart & Stroke
- Questions
- 30
- Pass mark
- 75%
- Time limit
- 45 min
Independent practice — not affiliated with Canadian Red Cross / St. John Ambulance / Heart & Stroke. Always confirm current requirements with the official authority.
How long should each rescue breath last? (alternate scenario)
Each rescue breath is delivered over about 1 second with visible chest rise. This variant tests the same principle under a different scenario; the correct answe
The recommended compression depth for an adult during CPR is:
Current guidelines call for compressions at least 5 cm (2 in) deep, no more than 6 cm, allowing full chest recoil.
Pulse check in an adult should be performed at the:
Trained rescuers check the carotid pulse in adults, for no more than 10 seconds.
Which statement about rescue breaths is true?
Deliver each breath over about 1 second, just enough for visible chest rise.
If you are alone and have not yet called 9-1-1 for an adult cardiac arrest, you should:
Activate EMS first for adults — early defibrillation is critical.
Compressions should be performed with the rescuer's:
Use the heel of one hand with the other on top, elbows locked, shoulders over the chest.
Compression depth for a child is approximately:
Compress about 1/3 the AP diameter of the chest, roughly 5 cm in children.
If you are alone and find a collapsed unresponsive child not breathing, you should:
For children (likely respiratory cause), give 2 minutes of CPR first, then call EMS if alone.
The most common cause of cardiac arrest in a child is:
Pediatric arrests are usually respiratory in origin, so airway and breathing are key.
Initial rescue breaths in a pediatric unresponsive non-breathing victim:
Trained rescuers may give initial rescue breaths in children given the respiratory etiology.
Each rescue breath given to a child should:
1-second breaths with visible chest rise; avoid over-ventilation.
If pediatric AED pads are unavailable for a child, you should:
Adult pads are acceptable if pediatric pads are unavailable; do not let the pads touch.
Signs that a child needs CPR include:
Unresponsiveness plus abnormal breathing/no pulse means start CPR.
A child who collapses suddenly with a witnessed arrest most likely needs:
Witnessed sudden collapse is more likely cardiac — call first and get an AED.
Two-finger or two-thumb encircling technique is used for:
Infants — not children. Children get one- or two-hand compressions.
Initial energy for pediatric defibrillation is typically:
Initial dose is 2 J/kg; subsequent shocks 4 J/kg (manual). AEDs with pediatric attenuator handle this automatically.
If two rescuers are present, one should:
Divide tasks: one starts CPR, the other calls EMS and retrieves the AED.
If chest does not rise during rescue breaths in a child:
Re-open the airway; if still no rise, suspect obstruction and follow choking algorithm.
Avoid placing AED pads:
Remove patches and avoid pacemaker — place pad at least 2.5 cm away.
Two-rescuer infant compression technique is:
Two-thumb encircling hands is preferred when two rescuers are available.
Pulse check in an infant is at the:
Brachial pulse is used in infants because the neck is short.
To open an infant's airway use:
A neutral or slight head-tilt keeps the airway open; hyperextension can occlude it.
Rescue breaths for an infant should:
Use small puffs producing visible chest rise — about 1 second each.
If you are alone with no phone and find an unresponsive infant not breathing, you should:
Like children, give 2 minutes of CPR first before leaving to call EMS if alone.
If pediatric AED pads are unavailable for an infant, you should:
Use adult pads in anterior-posterior placement to keep them from touching.
Pulse check in an infant should not exceed:
≤10 seconds before starting compressions if no pulse or HR <60 with poor perfusion.
Compression hand placement for infants:
Just below the imaginary nipple line on the lower half of the sternum.
Excessive ventilation in infants can:
Forceful breaths cause gastric inflation and decreased venous return.
The recovery position for an unresponsive breathing infant is:
Hold the infant face-down along your forearm with the head slightly lower.
Initial rescue breaths in a pediatric unresponsive non-breathing infant:
Trained rescuers can give initial breaths in pediatric arrests of respiratory cause.
If the infant has a witnessed sudden collapse, you should:
Sudden witnessed collapse suggests a shockable arrhythmia — defibrillation is priority.
Compression-only CPR for infants is:
Compressions-only is acceptable if you cannot give breaths, but breaths are particularly important in infants.
An AED is used on victims who are:
Use only on victims in cardiac arrest — unresponsive, not breathing.
Before delivering a shock you should:
Clear the victim visually and verbally before pressing shock.
After a shock, you should:
Resume CPR immediately for 2 minutes before the AED re-analyzes.
On a very hairy chest you should:
Hair prevents adhesion; shave or pull off a stuck pad to remove hair, then apply fresh pads.
A medication patch (e.g., nitroglycerin) on the chest should be:
Remove the patch and wipe the area; medication can interfere or burn skin under the pad.
Pediatric pads or attenuator should be used for victims who are:
Pediatric settings for children under 8 or ~25 kg; otherwise use adult pads.
If pediatric pads are unavailable for a small child or infant:
Adult pads are acceptable; place anterior-posterior on small chests.
An AED can be used on a victim lying in a puddle of water if:
Move the victim to a dry surface to prevent current dispersion.
Snowy/metal surfaces around an AED user are:
Modern AEDs are safe — just ensure nobody contacts the victim during the shock.
Use an AED on a pregnant woman in cardiac arrest:
AEDs are safe and indicated in pregnant cardiac arrest victims.
If your phone or radio is near the victim during AED analysis:
Keep phones/radios a short distance away to avoid electrical interference.
If the patient regains responsiveness, you should:
Keep pads attached, monitor for re-arrest, recovery position.
If you must transport the victim while using an AED, you should:
Movement interferes with rhythm analysis — stop the vehicle.
If the victim has a defibrillator vest (LifeVest) you should:
Remove a wearable defibrillator to allow AED pad placement and analysis.
Place adult pads on a small child anterior-posterior because:
Pads must not touch each other — front/back placement avoids overlap.
Modern AEDs can be used on patients lying on:
Dry the patient and move off conductive puddles when feasible.
Survival from witnessed VF cardiac arrest with early CPR and AED can be:
Witnessed VF with prompt CPR + defibrillation can reach 50–70% survival.
If only one rescuer is present and an AED arrives mid-CPR:
Apply pads and use the device; pause compressions only as required by the AED.
After successful resuscitation and an AED shock, leave the pads:
Leaving pads attached allows further analysis if the victim re-arrests.
Severe (complete) airway obstruction in a conscious adult is treated with:
Combinations of back blows and abdominal thrusts until the object is expelled or the victim becomes unresponsive.
All severe choking incidents should be:
Internal injuries from thrusts and aspiration risk warrant medical assessment.
If the choking victim is much larger than you:
If you can't reach around, lower and straddle them for effective thrusts.
After a choking incident, watch for:
Signs of residual obstruction or aspiration require medical evaluation.
For an unresponsive choking adult, perform compressions because:
Chest compressions generate similar pressures to abdominal thrusts.
A small child swallowed a button battery and is choking. You should:
Button batteries are medical emergencies regardless of choking; call EMS.
A complete airway obstruction left untreated will lead to unconsciousness within approximately:
Without air movement, unconsciousness typically occurs within 1–3 minutes.
A pressure bandage is applied:
Snug enough to control bleeding but distal circulation should remain.
Signs of life-threatening external bleeding include:
Spurting/pulsating bleed and rapidly soaked clothing are severe.
A tourniquet should be applied:
Place high-and-tight on the limb above the wound; note the time of application.
Once applied, a tourniquet should:
Leave it in place until medical care; releasing risks lethal hemorrhage and reperfusion injury.
Common signs of shock include:
Hypovolemic/distributive shock typically presents with pale, cool, clammy skin and tachycardia.
Treatment for shock includes:
Lie flat, maintain body temperature, stop bleeding, summon EMS.
An adult can lose how much blood before shock typically develops?
Class II shock generally appears around 15–30% (~750–1500 mL) loss.
Internal bleeding may be indicated by:
Look for signs of shock with mechanism suggesting internal injury.
Severe bleeding from the scalp should be treated by:
Direct firm pressure controls most scalp bleeds despite their dramatic appearance.
Compression bandage techniques include:
Specifically designed compression dressings maintain firm focal pressure.
Avoid applying a tourniquet:
Don't place over joints — apply 5–7 cm above the wound on a single bone if possible.
Second-degree (partial-thickness) burns are characterized by:
Blisters and pain with moist red skin are partial-thickness.
First aid for a thermal burn is:
Cool running water for 10–20 minutes prevents further tissue damage.
Chemical burns are first treated by:
Remove dry chemical, then continuous water flushing; never neutralize.
An electrical burn often has:
Electricity travels through the body — call EMS and look for entry/exit wounds; cardiac monitoring needed.
Do NOT remove which from a burn?
Leave stuck fabric; remove non-adherent items before swelling starts.
Inhalation injury is suggested by:
Airway burns are life-threatening; activate EMS immediately.
A burn victim with shock should be:
Treat for shock; cover with clean dry dressing, prevent hypothermia.
Cool water for burns is best:
Use cool — not icy — water to prevent further injury and hypothermia.
A lightning-strike victim should be:
Lightning victims may be in cardiac arrest; they don't retain charge.
Children's skin burns:
Thinner skin in children means deeper injury at lower temperatures.
Aspirin during a suspected heart attack:
Chewed aspirin slows clot growth; check for allergy/bleeding contraindications.
Women, the elderly, and diabetics may present with:
Atypical presentations are common; have a low threshold to call EMS.
Angina differs from a heart attack in that it:
Stable angina resolves with rest; persistent symptoms suggest MI.
The FAST mnemonic for stroke stands for:
Face droop, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call 9-1-1.
On recognizing stroke signs you should:
Time of onset is critical for thrombolytic eligibility; call EMS.
Hyperglycemia symptoms include:
High blood sugar develops more slowly with osmotic symptoms.
Typical rescue inhaler dosing during an attack:
Repeat dosing every 5 minutes while awaiting EMS, per medical direction.
Anaphylaxis is recognized by:
Multisystem allergic reaction — airway/breathing/circulation involvement.
If anaphylaxis symptoms persist after 5–15 minutes:
A repeat dose is appropriate when symptoms persist or recur.
Glyceryl trinitrate (nitroglycerin) for chest pain:
Help patient self-administer their prescribed sublingual nitro.
A suspected heart-attack patient should be placed:
Comfortable position, often semi-sitting; minimize exertion.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is suggested by:
DKA = severe hyperglycemia with ketones; Kussmaul respirations and fruity breath.
Heat exhaustion is recognized by:
Profuse sweating with relatively preserved temperature and altered comfort.
Heat stroke is recognized by:
Heat stroke = systemic hyperthermia with neurologic dysfunction.
Avoid in heat-stroke cooling:
Use safer techniques like water mist + fanning or partial immersion under supervision.
Rewarming for severe hypothermia is best done:
Avoid rapid peripheral rewarming which can cause core temperature 'afterdrop' and shock.
Frostbite first aid in the field includes:
Rewarm in lukewarm water only when refreezing is not possible; rubbing causes damage.
Heat cramps are due to:
Salt and fluid loss with exertion causes painful muscle cramps.
Prevent heat illness by:
Hydrate, schedule activity to cooler times, lightweight clothing.
Hypothermia can occur even in cool (not freezing) weather when:
Wet + windy conditions can produce hypothermia at moderate temperatures.
A hypothermia patient with no pulse should:
Bradycardia/asystole-like in cold patients — extended pulse check and prolonged CPR may be warranted.
A suspected fracture should be:
Splint in position of comfort/found; let medical providers reduce.
An open fracture should be:
Cover with sterile dressing and control bleeding; do not manipulate the bone.
A concussion is suggested by:
Concussion is a mild brain injury without structural damage but needs evaluation.
Indications of spinal injury include:
Neurologic deficits or significant mechanism + pain suggest spinal injury.
Move a spine-injured patient only if:
Movement risks worsening cord injury; move only when essential.
Eye injuries with embedded objects:
Stabilize impaled objects; cover both eyes to reduce sympathetic movement.
Knocked-out (avulsed) permanent tooth care:
Best chance of survival is rapid replantation or storage in milk.
Pelvic fracture is suggested by:
Pelvic fractures bleed significantly; immobilize and transport.
For a suspected poisoning in Canada, call:
Poison Control provides immediate expert advice; 9-1-1 for serious symptoms.
Carbon monoxide poisoning is suggested by:
Suspect CO when multiple people in a setting share nonspecific flu-like symptoms; move to fresh air.
For a swallowed poison, you should:
Inducing vomiting can worsen many ingestions; follow Poison Control guidance.
Do NOT induce vomiting in:
Caustics burn twice; hydrocarbons cause aspiration pneumonitis.
Multiple residents in one home with headache and dizziness suggests:
Suspect environmental cause when multiple people share symptoms.
PPE for a first aider should include:
Standard precautions: gloves, eye protection, barrier device.
Implied consent applies when:
If life-threatening and consent cannot be obtained, implied consent allows care.
If you are alone and the victim is unresponsive, what do you do FIRST?
Call first for adult sudden collapse; otherwise call after starting CPR cycles in children/infants.
Expose the patient in ABCDE means:
Examine adequately while protecting privacy and temperature.
Document care provided including:
Accurate documentation supports continuity of care and legal protection.
A child collapses at a swimming pool and is unresponsive without normal breathing. You should:
Pediatric arrests are often respiratory; initial breaths are recommended for trained responders.
A toddler at lunch suddenly cannot make any sound and is turning blue. You should:
Severe choking in a child — back blows and abdominal thrusts.
An adult sustains a deep cut on the neck. You should:
Neck bleeding requires firm direct pressure; never tourniquet the neck.
If unsure whether someone is having a heart attack or a stroke:
Both require urgent EMS. The correct answer is "Call 9-1-1 — both are time-critical". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns
First aid for a thermal burn is: (alternate scenario)
Cool burns with cool running water ≥10 min; do not use butter/ice. Cover loosely with a clean, non-stick dressing. This variant tests the same principle under a
What is the recommended compression rate for adult CPR? (alternate scenario)
Compression rate: 100–120 per minute for all ages. This variant tests the same principle under a different scenario; the correct answer remains "100–120 per min
After delivering a shock with an AED, you should:
Resume CPR for 2 minutes before the AED re-analyzes. The correct answer is "Immediately resume CPR starting with compressions". This reflects the accepted stand
What does the C-A-B sequence in CPR stand for?
Adult BLS uses Compressions, then Airway, then Breathing. The correct answer is "Compressions–Airway–Breathing". This reflects the accepted standard for the fir
What is the recommended compression rate for adult CPR?
Push hard and fast at 100–120 compressions per minute. The correct answer is "100–120 per minute". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessme
CPR on a soft surface such as a mattress is improved by:
A firm surface allows effective compression depth. The correct answer is "Placing a backboard under the victim or moving to the floor". This reflects the accept
'Push hard and push fast' refers to:
Compressions should be deep and at 100–120/min. The correct answer is "Chest compressions". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and
Permissive interruption time for switching rescuers should be:
Plan the swap so the pause in compressions is <5 seconds. The correct answer is "<5 seconds". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment an
High-quality CPR includes all EXCEPT:
Avoid leaning — allow full recoil between compressions. The correct answer is "Leaning on the chest between compressions". This reflects the accepted standard f
If a victim vomits during CPR, you should:
Quickly roll, clear the airway, then continue CPR. The correct answer is "Roll the victim onto their side, clear the airway, then resume CPR". This reflects the
AED batteries and pads:
Replace expired pads and batteries to ensure readiness. The correct answer is "Have expiry dates and must be checked periodically". This reflects the accepted s
The AED button labelled with a lightning bolt is:
Lightning bolt = shock. The correct answer is "The shock button". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with the official h
Pad position for pediatric anterior-posterior placement is:
Front centre and back centre — pads do not touch. The correct answer is "One pad on centre of chest, one centred between scapulae on the back". This reflects th
An AED is safe to use in the rain provided that:
Dry the skin and ensure good pad adherence. The correct answer is "The chest is dried and pads stick well". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid
If the victim's chest is wet, you should:
Quickly towel the chest dry — water can shunt current. The correct answer is "Dry it quickly before placing pads". This reflects the accepted standard for the f
If the AED prompts 'check electrodes' you should:
Check pad contact and connector. The correct answer is "Ensure pads are in firm contact with skin and connector is plugged in". This reflects the accepted stand
If the AED malfunctions, you should:
Don't interrupt CPR — keep going and wait for EMS. The correct answer is "Continue CPR and call EMS". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid asses
The first step when using an AED is to:
Power on and follow the prompts. The correct answer is "Turn it on and follow the voice prompts". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessmen
If the victim has breast implants or large breasts, place the lateral pad:
Lateral chest wall placement avoids the breast tissue. The correct answer is "On the side of the chest, lateral to or under the breast". This reflects the accep
If the AED reads 'check pads' you should:
Reseat pads as needed for good contact. The correct answer is "Inspect pads for proper placement and skin contact". This reflects the accepted standard for the
A safety check before pressing shock includes:
Stop O2 flow over the chest, clear contact, then shock. The correct answer is "Visual scan for contact, oxygen flow stopped near chest, loud 'CLEAR!'". This ref
An AED is most effective when used:
Survival drops about 10% per minute without defibrillation. The correct answer is "As soon as possible after collapse". This reflects the accepted standard for
Avoid placing AED pads over:
Remove jewelry from the pad area to ensure good contact. The correct answer is "Jewelry necklaces on the chest". This reflects the accepted standard for the fir
AED stands for:
Automated External Defibrillator. The correct answer is "Automated External Defibrillator". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and
An AED will deliver a shock only if it detects:
AEDs analyze for shockable rhythms only. The correct answer is "A shockable rhythm (VF or pulseless VT)". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid a
Public-access AEDs are designed for:
AEDs guide untrained users with voice prompts. The correct answer is "Lay rescuers — the device guides them". This reflects the accepted standard for the firsta
If the AED indicates a low battery:
Swap the battery and continue using the AED. The correct answer is "Replace the battery and continue". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid asse
During CPR with an AED, compressions should be paused for analysis for no more than:
Limit pauses to ≤10 seconds. The correct answer is "10 seconds". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with the official ha
If the AED says 'no shock advised' you should:
Continue CPR unless signs of life are present. The correct answer is "Continue CPR if no signs of life". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid as
Re-analyze with the AED:
Standard cycle is 2 minutes of CPR between analyses. The correct answer is "Every 2 minutes during CPR". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid as
After turning on the AED you should immediately:
Expose the chest and attach pads per the diagrams. The correct answer is "Expose the chest and attach pads as the device instructs". This reflects the accepted
Standard adult AED pad placement is:
Upper right (below clavicle) and lower-left lateral chest. The correct answer is "Upper right chest and lower left side". This reflects the accepted standard fo
Biphasic AEDs typically deliver initial energies of:
Modern biphasic AEDs deliver in the 120–200 J range. The correct answer is "120–200 J". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and alig
While the AED analyzes the rhythm you should:
Make sure nobody is touching the victim during analysis. The correct answer is "Stand clear and ensure no one is touching the victim". This reflects the accepte
AED pads should be replaced if they are:
Use fresh, in-date pads with good gel. The correct answer is "Expired or dried out". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns
After bleeding stops you should:
Dress the wound and continue to observe. The correct answer is "Apply a clean dressing and bandage, monitor for re-bleeding". This reflects the accepted standar
If you suspect spinal injury but the victim is bleeding severely:
Stabilize spine and control bleeding simultaneously. The correct answer is "Manual cervical stabilization while controlling bleeding". This reflects the accepte
Septic shock is suspected when:
Sepsis can cause distributive shock; activate EMS. The correct answer is "Severe infection is associated with low BP and altered mental status". This reflects t
If a victim faints, lay them flat and:
Manage as transient shock; check for fall-related injuries. The correct answer is "Loosen tight clothing, monitor breathing, treat any injuries from the fall".
If blood soaks through the first dressing, you should:
Never remove the original dressing; layer more on top. The correct answer is "Add more dressings on top — do not remove the first". This reflects the accepted s
Capillary bleeding typically:
Capillary bleeding is slow ooze that usually self-limits. The correct answer is "Oozes slowly and clots easily". This reflects the accepted standard for the fir
A nosebleed is best treated by:
Lean forward, pinch the soft part for 10–15 minutes. The correct answer is "Leaning forward and pinching the soft part of the nose for 10–15 minutes". This refl
Continually monitor a bleeding victim for:
Re-assess ABCs and bleeding every few minutes. The correct answer is "Changes in consciousness, breathing, and bleeding through dressings". This reflects the ac
Shock from severe bleeding is called:
Loss of circulating volume = hypovolemic shock. The correct answer is "Hypovolemic shock". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and a
The first-line treatment for external bleeding is:
Apply firm direct pressure with a clean dressing. The correct answer is "Direct firm pressure on the wound". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstai
Capillary refill of more than 2 seconds suggests:
Slow CRT indicates poor peripheral perfusion. The correct answer is "Poor perfusion / possible shock". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid asse
A child with mechanism of severe injury but no obvious external bleeding should be:
Assume internal bleeding and treat for shock; call EMS. The correct answer is "Treated for possible internal bleeding and shock". This reflects the accepted sta
A tourniquet is indicated when:
Use for severe limb bleeding uncontrolled by pressure. The correct answer is "Direct pressure fails to control limb hemorrhage". This reflects the accepted stan
Wear personal protective equipment (PPE) when treating bleeding because:
Body substance isolation reduces disease transmission risk. The correct answer is "Blood can transmit infectious diseases". This reflects the accepted standard
Do not give a victim in shock:
Avoid oral intake — they may need surgery and could vomit. The correct answer is "Food or drink". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessmen
Treat blisters from a burn by:
Intact blisters protect underlying tissue from infection. The correct answer is "Leaving intact and covering loosely; do not pop". This reflects the accepted st
Tar or asphalt burns: do you remove the tar?
Cool the tar in place; specialist removal at hospital. The correct answer is "No — cool and transport; removal is done medically". This reflects the accepted st
Burns to the face, hands, feet, genitals, or major joints should:
Critical areas always warrant medical assessment. The correct answer is "Receive medical evaluation regardless of apparent severity". This reflects the accepted
Do NOT apply which to a burn?
Home remedies and ice can worsen tissue damage. The correct answer is "Butter, oils, toothpaste, ice directly". This reflects the accepted standard for the firs
A burn larger than the victim's palm typically:
Larger or deep burns need medical assessment. The correct answer is "Needs medical evaluation". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment
First-degree (superficial) burns affect:
Like a typical sunburn — red, painful, dry. The correct answer is "Only the outer layer (epidermis) — red, painful, no blisters". This reflects the accepted sta
Total body surface area (TBSA) >10% in a child or >15–20% in an adult is considered:
Major burns require ED/burn-centre management. The correct answer is "A major burn requiring urgent EMS and burn-centre care". This reflects the accepted standa
Cover a burn with:
Loose non-stick covering protects without sticking. The correct answer is "A clean, dry, non-stick dressing or cling film loosely". This reflects the accepted s
Calculating burn extent in adults uses the 'rule of nines'. The head is approximately:
Adult head ~9%; child head ~18%. The correct answer is "9%". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with the official handbo
Hydrofluoric acid burns require:
HF is uniquely dangerous; specific treatment is required. The correct answer is "Immediate EMS — they can cause systemic toxicity and need calcium gluconate". T
Before approaching an electrical burn victim:
Scene safety first — switch off power before contact. The correct answer is "Ensure the power is off". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid asse
After treating a burn, monitor for:
Ongoing reassessment of ABCs and burn status. The correct answer is "Signs of shock, airway compromise, infection". This reflects the accepted standard for the
A circumferential burn (around a limb or chest) can cause:
Constricting eschar may require escharotomy — urgent EMS. The correct answer is "Compromised circulation or breathing". This reflects the accepted standard for
Third-degree (full-thickness) burns appear:
Full thickness destroys nerves; centre may be painless. The correct answer is "White, leathery or charred, often painless in the centre". This reflects the acce
Sunburn is typically a:
Most sunburns are superficial; severe ones can blister. The correct answer is "First-degree burn (or partial-thickness if blistered)". This reflects the accepte
Cycle length of compressions:breaths at 15:2 takes approximately:
Roughly 15 seconds for 15 compressions plus 2 breaths. The correct answer is "About 15 seconds". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment
CPR is most effective when started:
Early bystander CPR dramatically improves outcomes. The correct answer is "As quickly as possible after collapse". This reflects the accepted standard for the f
Quality CPR for a child requires:
Allow complete recoil to optimize perfusion. The correct answer is "Full chest recoil between compressions". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstai
In a child >25 kg or older than 8, you should:
At >8 years or >25 kg, treat as an adult for AED purposes. The correct answer is "Use adult AED pads/settings". This reflects the accepted standard for the firs
To open the airway of a child with suspected neck injury use:
Jaw-thrust avoids moving the spine. The correct answer is "Jaw-thrust". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with the offi
Compression rate for child CPR is:
Rate is the same as adults: 100–120/min. The correct answer is "100–120/min". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with th
Recovery position is appropriate for a child who is:
Keeps the airway clear in an unresponsive breathing child. The correct answer is "Unresponsive but breathing normally with no spinal injury". This reflects the
If a child gasps occasionally and is otherwise unresponsive, you should:
Agonal gasps are not effective breathing — start CPR. The correct answer is "Treat as cardiac arrest and start CPR". This reflects the accepted standard for the
Two rescuers should switch compressors every:
Switch every 2 minutes to maintain quality. The correct answer is "2 minutes". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with t
Single-rescuer compression-to-ventilation ratio for a child is:
Single rescuer uses 30:2 in children. The correct answer is "30:2". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with the official
Rescue breath volume in a child should be enough to:
Just visible chest rise — no more. The correct answer is "Produce visible chest rise". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and align
Pulse check in a child should not exceed:
≤10 seconds before deciding to start compressions. The correct answer is "10 seconds". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and align
A child with a pulse less than 60/min and signs of poor perfusion should:
If HR <60 with poor perfusion, start CPR. The correct answer is "Receive chest compressions and rescue breaths (CPR)". This reflects the accepted standard for t
After 30 compressions a lone rescuer gives a child:
Same 30:2 ratio for solo rescuers. The correct answer is "2 rescue breaths". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with the
Two-rescuer ratio for child CPR (trained providers) is:
Two trained rescuers use 15:2 for children and infants. The correct answer is "15:2". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns
Hand placement for child compressions is on:
Same landmark as adults — lower half of the sternum. The correct answer is "The lower half of the sternum, centre of the chest". This reflects the accepted stan
A child rescuer should compress at least:
About 5 cm or 1/3 AP diameter. The correct answer is "About 5 cm or 1/3 the chest depth". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and al
Compressions on a small child can be performed with:
Use one or two hands as needed to achieve adequate depth. The correct answer is "One or two hands depending on the child's size". This reflects the accepted sta
CPR on a child should be performed on:
A firm flat surface enables effective compression depth. The correct answer is "A firm flat surface". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid asses
Rescue breaths through a barrier device:
Use a pocket mask or face shield when available. The correct answer is "Reduce infection risk". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment
Stop CPR on a child when:
Continue until ROSC, EMS, or you can no longer continue. The correct answer is "Signs of life appear, EMS takes over, or an AED tells you to". This reflects the
For a conscious choking infant, after 5 back blows you should:
Alternate 5 back blows with 5 chest thrusts. The correct answer is "Turn the infant and give 5 chest thrusts". This reflects the accepted standard for the first
A choking child is treated similarly to an adult by:
Children get back blows and abdominal thrusts like adults. The correct answer is "Back blows and abdominal thrusts". This reflects the accepted standard for the
A universal sign of choking is:
Hands to the throat is the universal sign of choking. The correct answer is "Hands clutched to the throat". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid
If air still does not enter on the first rescue breath during CPR for choking, you should:
Re-tilt the head and retry the breath before continuing. The correct answer is "Reposition the airway and try again before continuing compressions". This reflec
A choking victim sitting in a wheelchair:
Perform thrusts around the chair if you can reach. The correct answer is "Can receive abdominal thrusts from behind around the chair". This reflects the accepte
To form a fist for abdominal thrusts:
Thumb-side toward the abdomen, just above umbilicus. The correct answer is "Thumb side against the abdomen, just above the navel". This reflects the accepted st
If a choking victim becomes silent and cyanotic, the obstruction is:
Silent victim = no air movement = severe obstruction. The correct answer is "Severe — begin back blows and thrusts immediately". This reflects the accepted stan
Prevent choking in children by:
Small bites, supervision, avoiding high-risk foods. The correct answer is "Cutting food small, supervising meals, avoiding hard candies/grapes/whole nuts". This
A choking adult who is coughing forcefully should be:
If air is moving, encourage coughing; don't interfere. The correct answer is "Encouraged to keep coughing". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid
Always call 9-1-1 for a choking emergency if:
Activate EMS for severe or unresolved choking. The correct answer is "The obstruction is severe or persistent, the victim becomes unresponsive, or you are unsur
If chest thrusts on an infant fail to expel an object and the infant becomes unresponsive:
Begin CPR with airway checks. The correct answer is "Start CPR; look in the mouth each time you open the airway". This reflects the accepted standard for the fi
Abdominal thrusts on yourself can be performed by:
Lean over a firm surface and thrust upward. The correct answer is "Pressing the upper abdomen against a chair back". This reflects the accepted standard for the
Common causes of choking in children include:
Round, slippery, or small items are high-risk in children. The correct answer is "Small toy parts, hot dogs, grapes, hard candy". This reflects the accepted sta
If a victim coughs out the object and breathes normally after thrusts, you should:
Medical evaluation after abdominal thrust treatment. The correct answer is "Recommend they be evaluated by a physician". This reflects the accepted standard for
Inspect the airway during CPR on a choking victim:
Look for and remove only visible foreign bodies. The correct answer is "Each time you open the airway to give breaths". This reflects the accepted standard for
Back blows in a choking adult should be delivered:
Use the heel of the hand between the scapulae. The correct answer is "Between the shoulder blades with the heel of the hand". This reflects the accepted standar
Chest thrusts in an infant are performed:
Same landmark as CPR compressions, but slower and sharper. The correct answer is "On the lower half of the sternum with two fingers, slower than CPR". This refl
For a choking infant, the technique is:
Alternate 5 back blows with 5 chest thrusts in infants. The correct answer is "5 back blows then 5 chest thrusts". This reflects the accepted standard for the f
Effective abdominal thrusts are delivered:
Quick, distinct upward-inward thrusts; reassess after each. The correct answer is "Quickly, with separate distinct upward and inward thrusts". This reflects the
After clearing a foreign body in an unresponsive choking victim:
Reassess and continue care based on findings. The correct answer is "Check breathing and pulse; continue CPR or recovery position as appropriate". This reflects
If an adult collapses from choking and the airway clears during CPR but they remain unresponsive and breath…
Recovery position once breathing resumes. The correct answer is "Place in the recovery position and monitor". This reflects the accepted standard for the firsta
If the victim becomes unresponsive while you are giving thrusts:
Switch to CPR and look for the object before breaths. The correct answer is "Lower them gently to the floor and begin CPR". This reflects the accepted standard
Avoid administering abdominal thrusts in:
Use chest thrusts/back blows in infants. The correct answer is "Infants under 1 year". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and align
Risk of choking is higher in:
Both ends of the age spectrum are at higher risk. The correct answer is "Young children and older adults". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid
Layered clothing and dry insulation help prevent:
Insulation and dryness preserve body heat. The correct answer is "Hypothermia and frostbite". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment an
Treat heat exhaustion by:
Cool the victim and hydrate if alert. The correct answer is "Moving to cool area, loosening clothing, giving sips of water if conscious, cooling". This reflects
Heat stroke first aid includes:
Rapid cooling is life-saving; activate EMS. The correct answer is "Call 9-1-1, aggressively cool with cool water/ice packs, fan". This reflects the accepted sta
Severe hypothermia is suggested when:
Shivering ceases as hypothermia worsens. The correct answer is "Shivering stops and the victim becomes drowsy or unresponsive". This reflects the accepted stand
Frostbite is most commonly seen in:
Peripheral and exposed tissue freeze first. The correct answer is "Fingers, toes, nose, ears, cheeks". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid asse
Treat heat cramps with:
Hydrate with electrolyte solutions and rest. The correct answer is "Rest in cool area, gentle stretching, oral fluids with electrolytes". This reflects the acce
Signs of mild hypothermia include:
Shivering and altered behaviour signal mild hypothermia. The correct answer is "Shivering, cold pale skin, confusion". This reflects the accepted standard for t
Refreezing thawed tissue:
Better to leave frozen than thaw-then-refreeze. The correct answer is "Causes more damage than leaving frozen until definitive care". This reflects the accepted
Hypothermia is a core body temperature below approximately:
Mild hypothermia <35°C. The correct answer is "35°C (95°F)". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with the official handbo
Move a hypothermic person gently because:
The cold heart is prone to VF with mechanical stimulation. The correct answer is "Rough handling can trigger fatal arrhythmias". This reflects the accepted stan
Frostbite is recognized by:
Tissue freezing causes pale waxy skin and numbness. The correct answer is "Hard, waxy, white or grey skin with numbness". This reflects the accepted standard fo
After 2 minutes of CPR on an infant the lone rescuer should:
Call EMS after the first 2-minute cycle if alone. The correct answer is "Pause briefly to call 9-1-1 if not yet done". This reflects the accepted standard for t
Mouth-to-mouth-and-nose is used for:
For infants, cover both the mouth and nose with your mouth. The correct answer is "Infants". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and
An 'infant' for CPR purposes is:
Infant techniques apply from about 1 month to 1 year. The correct answer is "Under 1 year (excluding newborns in the delivery room)". This reflects the accepted
Each infant rescue breath should last about:
1 second with visible chest rise. The correct answer is "1 second". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with the official
Avoid hyperextending an infant's neck because it can:
Hyperextension may collapse the soft airway. The correct answer is "Obstruct the airway". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and al
After a shock from an AED on an infant, you should:
Resume CPR right after the shock for 2 minutes. The correct answer is "Immediately resume CPR for 2 minutes starting with compressions". This reflects the accep
Avoid compressing on the:
Avoid the xiphoid — it can injure the liver. The correct answer is "Xiphoid process". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns
Lone rescuer technique for infant compressions:
Lone rescuer uses two fingers just below the nipple line. The correct answer is "Two-finger technique on lower half of sternum". This reflects the accepted stan
If the infant vomits during CPR:
Clear the airway and resume CPR. The correct answer is "Turn the infant on the side, clear the airway, then continue". This reflects the accepted standard for t
Avoid which during infant CPR?
Hyperextension can occlude the soft airway. The correct answer is "Hyperextension of the neck". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment
After 30 compressions, a lone rescuer gives an infant:
Same 30:2 ratio. The correct answer is "2 breaths". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with the official handbook for th
CPR should continue until:
Continue until handover or signs of life. The correct answer is "The infant recovers, EMS takes over, or you are exhausted". This reflects the accepted standard
Compression depth for an infant is about:
About 4 cm or 1/3 the AP depth in an infant. The correct answer is "1.5 inches (4 cm) or 1/3 the depth of the chest". This reflects the accepted standard for th
Effective infant compressions should produce:
About 4 cm deflection in infants. The correct answer is "Visible chest deflection of about 4 cm". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessmen
The most common cause of cardiac arrest in infants is:
Respiratory in origin — emphasize airway and breathing. The correct answer is "Respiratory issues (e.g., SIDS, choking, drowning)". This reflects the accepted s
An infant with HR <60 and poor perfusion despite oxygenation should:
Start CPR for an infant with HR <60 and poor perfusion. The correct answer is "Receive chest compressions and rescue breaths". This reflects the accepted standa
If a pulse is present but the infant is not breathing, give:
Rescue breathing alone at 12–20/min if pulse ≥60. The correct answer is "1 breath every 3–5 seconds". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid asses
Infant CPR should be performed on:
A firm flat surface lets compressions be effective. The correct answer is "A firm flat surface (or with the rescuer's forearm supporting the back)". This reflec
Two-rescuer ratio for infants (trained providers) is:
Two trained rescuers use 15:2. The correct answer is "15:2". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with the official handbo
Single-rescuer ratio for infants is:
Solo rescuer uses 30:2 for infants. The correct answer is "30:2". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with the official h
Compression rate for an infant is:
Same as adults and children — 100–120/min. The correct answer is "100–120/min". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with
Stop CPR on an infant if:
Any of those reasons; otherwise continue. The correct answer is "All of the above". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns w
Help with a prescribed inhaler involves:
Slow inhalation maximizes lung deposition. The correct answer is "Shaking the canister, exhaling, sealing lips around the mouthpiece, inhaling slowly while pres
Treat fainting by:
Supine with legs up improves cerebral perfusion. The correct answer is "Laying flat with legs elevated if no injury; monitor". This reflects the accepted standa
Chest pain that radiates to the left arm, jaw, or back suggests:
Radiation pattern suggests cardiac etiology. The correct answer is "Possible cardiac origin — call EMS". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid as
Immediate treatment for anaphylaxis is:
Epinephrine first-line; antihistamines are adjuncts. The correct answer is "Intramuscular epinephrine (EpiPen) in the thigh and call 9-1-1". This reflects the a
First aid for asthma is to:
Use the inhaler (with spacer if available); sit upright. The correct answer is "Help the person use their prescribed inhaler and sit upright". This reflects the
Severe asthma may show:
Silent chest indicates very poor airflow — critical. The correct answer is "Silent chest, inability to speak, cyanosis". This reflects the accepted standard for
Stroke recognition tools include:
FAST/BE-FAST are common community tools. The correct answer is "FAST, BE-FAST, Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale". This reflects the accepted standard for the
A 'mini-stroke' (TIA) requires:
TIAs are warning events with high short-term stroke risk. The correct answer is "Urgent medical evaluation — high risk of stroke within days". This reflects the
Implantable cardioverter defibrillators (ICDs) may:
Continue CPR; brief tingle possible but generally safe. The correct answer is "Deliver internal shocks that are usually safe to the rescuer". This reflects the
Signs of an asthma attack include:
Bronchospasm causes wheezing and dyspnea. The correct answer is "Wheezing, shortness of breath, tight chest, cough". This reflects the accepted standard for the
If the diabetic is unresponsive you should:
Unresponsive — protect airway and call EMS; no oral intake. The correct answer is "Call 9-1-1, place in recovery position, do not give anything by mouth". This
Call 9-1-1 for asthma if:
Severe or worsening symptoms require EMS. The correct answer is "Inhaler doesn't help, breathing worsens, or the person can't speak in full sentences". This ref
Symptoms of fainting include:
Syncope is transient; assess for cause and injuries. The correct answer is "Brief loss of consciousness from low brain perfusion, often with quick recovery". Th
A patient with chest pain refusing EMS should be:
Document refusal; insist on EMS evaluation. The correct answer is "Persuaded to accept evaluation and have a witness present". This reflects the accepted standa
During a generalized seizure you should:
Do not restrain; protect from injury and time the event. The correct answer is "Protect the head, clear nearby hazards, time the seizure". This reflects the acc
Wheezing that becomes a 'silent chest' indicates:
Silent chest = critically poor airflow. The correct answer is "Severe airway obstruction needing urgent care". This reflects the accepted standard for the first
Allergic reactions can progress to anaphylaxis:
Anaphylaxis develops rapidly. The correct answer is "Within minutes of exposure". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns wit
A conscious diabetic with low blood sugar should be given:
Rapid sugar reverses hypoglycemia; recheck in 15 minutes. The correct answer is "A fast-acting sugar source (juice, glucose tablets, sweetened drink)". This ref
Insulin shock is another term for:
Excess insulin causes hypoglycemia ('insulin shock'). The correct answer is "Severe hypoglycemia". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessme
Pre-existing seizure medication side effects:
Antiseizure meds commonly cause sedation and ataxia. The correct answer is "Drowsiness, double vision, ataxia". This reflects the accepted standard for the firs
Status epilepticus is:
Life-threatening — activate EMS. The correct answer is "A seizure lasting >5 minutes or recurring without recovery — a life-threatening emergency". This reflect
Hyperventilation syndrome is treated by:
Coaching slow breathing is first-line. The correct answer is "Reassurance and coached slow breathing". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid asse
An adult with sudden severe headache 'worst headache of life' may be having:
Sudden 'thunderclap' headache is concerning for SAH. The correct answer is "Subarachnoid hemorrhage — call EMS". This reflects the accepted standard for the fir
Stroke symptoms can include:
Stroke symptoms are sudden onset and focal. The correct answer is "Sudden numbness/weakness on one side, confusion, severe headache, vision changes". This refle
If the diabetic improves after sugar, you should:
Stabilize blood sugar and watch for relapse. The correct answer is "Provide a longer-acting carbohydrate/protein snack and monitor". This reflects the accepted
If a conscious adult shows signs of a heart attack you should:
Call EMS first; place in a comfortable resting position. The correct answer is "Call 9-1-1, have them sit/rest, loosen tight clothing". This reflects the accept
Avoid in an asthma attack:
Triggers worsen symptoms; avoid them. The correct answer is "Cold air exposure, smoke, lying flat". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessm
'Time is brain' in stroke means:
Neuron loss accelerates with delay — call EMS quickly. The correct answer is "Faster treatment results in less brain tissue lost". This reflects the accepted st
After an epinephrine injection the patient should:
Biphasic reactions can occur; transport is essential. The correct answer is "Still be transported by EMS — symptoms can recur". This reflects the accepted stand
Hypoglycemia in an unresponsive diabetic can be treated by EMS with:
EMS administers dextrose IV or glucagon IM. The correct answer is "IV dextrose or IM glucagon". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment
Epinephrine auto-injector is injected into:
Mid-anterolateral thigh is standard. The correct answer is "The mid outer thigh, through clothing if needed". This reflects the accepted standard for the firsta
The compression-to-ventilation ratio for one-rescuer adult CPR is:
For a single rescuer the ratio is 30 compressions to 2 breaths in adults, children, and infants.
Where do you place your hands for adult chest compressions?
Hands go on the lower half of the sternum at the centre of the chest, between the nipples.
Before starting CPR on an unresponsive adult you should first:
Always ensure the scene is safe, then check responsiveness, call EMS, and check breathing/pulse before starting compressions.
Hands-only CPR is appropriate when:
Untrained bystanders should give continuous chest compressions without rescue breaths.
After every 30 compressions a single trained rescuer should:
Trained rescuers deliver 2 rescue breaths after each set of 30 compressions.
Full chest recoil between compressions is important because it:
Allowing the chest to fully rise lets the heart refill, which improves perfusion.
To open an unresponsive adult's airway (no suspected spinal injury) you should use:
Head-tilt/chin-lift is the standard airway-opening manoeuvre when no spinal injury is suspected.
If a spinal injury is suspected, the preferred airway technique is:
The jaw-thrust avoids moving the neck while still opening the airway.
How long should each rescue breath last?
Each breath should last about 1 second and produce visible chest rise. Avoid over-ventilation.
To minimize interruptions, chest compressions should be paused for no more than:
Pauses for breaths, pulse checks, or rhythm analysis should be ≤10 seconds.
With two rescuers performing adult CPR, switch compressors approximately every:
Switch every 2 minutes to limit fatigue-related quality loss.
You should activate EMS for an unresponsive adult:
Call 9-1-1 (or have someone call) as soon as you confirm the adult is unresponsive.
An unresponsive adult is breathing normally and has no suspected spinal injury. The best action is to:
An unresponsive breathing victim should be placed in the recovery position to maintain an open airway.
Agonal gasps in a collapsed adult indicate:
Agonal gasping is not effective breathing. Treat it as cardiac arrest and start CPR.
A pulse check should take no more than:
Limit pulse checks to ≤10 seconds before starting compressions.
Over-ventilation during CPR is harmful because it:
Excessive breaths raise intrathoracic pressure, decreasing venous return and cardiac output.
Effective compressions in an adult should compress the chest:
Aim for about one-third the AP depth of the chest (~5 cm in adults).
Continue CPR until:
Continue CPR until the victim recovers, an AED arrives and tells you to stop, EMS takes over, or you can no longer continue.
When alone with no phone, after confirming an adult is unresponsive and not breathing, you should:
For an adult collapse from a likely cardiac cause, call EMS first (or go for help) before starting CPR — defibrillation is time-critical.
For a witnessed adult collapse from a likely cardiac cause you should:
'Call first' for adults — early defibrillation is the priority.
The most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest in adults is:
Sudden cardiac arrest in adults is most often caused by VF from coronary heart disease.
If your rescue breaths do not make the chest rise you should:
Re-open the airway with head-tilt/chin-lift and reattempt; if still no rise, suspect airway obstruction.
Which is NOT a sign that an adult needs CPR?
A strong regular pulse means circulation is intact — CPR is not indicated.
A barrier device (pocket mask) is used during rescue breathing primarily to:
Barrier devices reduce infection risk during rescue breaths.
CPR for a pregnant woman in the third trimester should include:
Displace the uterus to the left to relieve aortocaval compression and improve venous return.
An adult drowning victim who is unresponsive and not breathing should receive:
Hypoxic arrests (drowning) benefit from initial rescue breaths before compressions.
CPR can be stopped if:
Stop CPR for any of these reasons; otherwise continue until exhausted.
To check breathing in an adult you should look, listen and feel for no more than:
Spend ≤10 seconds checking breathing; absent or abnormal breathing means start CPR.
Coronary perfusion pressure during CPR is improved by:
Continuous high-quality compressions build and maintain perfusion pressure.
Which sign means an adult is in cardiac arrest?
Unresponsiveness plus absent/abnormal breathing equals cardiac arrest.
The recovery position is used for:
It keeps the airway open and lets fluids drain in an unresponsive but breathing victim.
Which oxygen percentage is approximately delivered by rescuer exhaled-air breaths?
Exhaled air contains roughly 16% oxygen — enough to support life during CPR.
Excessive ventilation during CPR can cause:
Forceful or rapid breaths inflate the stomach and reduce cardiac output.
Compressions should be:
Consistent depth and rate with full recoil produces effective circulation.
The most likely shockable rhythm in an adult sudden collapse is:
VF is the most common initial shockable rhythm in adult sudden cardiac arrest.
If a bystander brings an AED while you are doing CPR, you should:
Don't interrupt CPR until pads are on and the AED is ready to analyze.
Adult CPR should be performed with the victim:
Supine on a firm surface is required for effective compressions.
For purposes of CPR, a 'child' is generally defined as:
Child CPR techniques apply from age 1 to puberty (about 8 in girls, 9 in boys).
Pulse check in a child is performed at the:
Use carotid or femoral in children; brachial is for infants.
Activate EMS for a child cardiac arrest:
If alone, give 2 minutes of CPR then call; with bystanders, send someone to call immediately.
When opening the airway of a child without suspected spinal injury, use:
Slight head-tilt/chin-lift is appropriate; avoid hyperextension which can obstruct the airway.
Avoid which during child CPR?
Excessive ventilation increases intrathoracic pressure and reduces output.
Use pediatric AED pads on a child up to age:
Pediatric pads/attenuator are preferred for children under 8 or about 25 kg.
If the chest does not rise during rescue breaths on an infant:
Re-open airway; if still ineffective, follow choking algorithm.
Two-rescuer infant CPR allows the second rescuer to:
Share compressions and tasks like calling 9-1-1 and getting the AED.
Quality CPR includes full chest recoil because:
Complete recoil permits ventricular filling between compressions.
When using a bag-valve mask on an infant, ventilate:
Provide one breath every 3–5 seconds (~12–20/min) when a pulse is present.
Why is gastric distension particularly problematic in infants?
Air in the stomach pushes up on the diaphragm and limits chest movement.
An implanted pacemaker visible as a lump under the skin requires:
Avoid placing pads directly over implanted devices; offset by ~2.5 cm.
Children at risk for sudden cardiac arrest include those with:
Various pediatric cardiac conditions can cause SCA — AED use is appropriate.
After an AED has been used, the pads and battery should be:
Replace pads (and battery if depleted) to keep the AED ready.
Continuous voice prompts on AEDs are intended to:
Prompts walk rescuers through pad placement, analysis, and shock delivery.
On a victim with a hairy chest, if pads stick poorly after pressing firmly, you can:
Pulling off a pad rips out hair, then place new pads for good contact.
Defibrillation works by:
A shock depolarizes the myocardium, allowing the sinus node to resume control.
Abdominal thrusts on an adult are performed:
Place a fist just above the umbilicus, well below the xiphoid, and thrust inward and upward.
If a choking adult becomes unresponsive you should:
Start CPR. Each time you open the airway, look for the object and remove it only if visible.
Abdominal thrusts are NOT used in infants because:
Infants have proportionally larger liver and small abdominal cavity — chest thrusts are safer.
For a choking pregnant woman or obese adult, use:
Chest thrusts are used when abdominal thrusts are impractical or unsafe.
A blind finger-sweep in choking is:
Never blind sweep; remove only visible foreign objects to avoid pushing them deeper.
A choking child becomes unresponsive — your next action is:
Start CPR, check mouth for the object during airway opening.
A mild (partial) airway obstruction is suggested by:
Strong coughing and speaking suggest air movement — encourage coughing.
If an adult is choking and alone, they can:
Use a sturdy surface like a chair back, or self-administer fist thrusts.
Position the infant for back blows:
Support the head and jaw, head lower than chest, along the forearm.
Hemostatic dressings are used:
Use on severe bleeding in groin, axilla, or neck where tourniquet is not feasible.
An embedded object in a wound should be:
Leave embedded objects — removing can worsen bleeding or damage.
Venous bleeding appears as:
Venous = darker, steady. Arterial = bright red and spurting.
Arterial bleeding is recognized by:
Arterial bleeding is the most dangerous and requires immediate pressure or tourniquet.
An amputated body part should be:
Keep the part cool but not frozen; transport with the victim.
For a chest wound that bubbles or sucks air:
A vented or three-sided seal prevents tension pneumothorax while sealing the open wound.
Bystander direct pressure should be applied:
Apply firm pressure with the cleanest material available; ideally wear gloves.
Late signs of shock include:
Decompensated shock shows altered consciousness and hypotension.
Children in shock can:
Pediatric compensation can mask shock until sudden collapse.
Classic signs of a heart attack in adults include:
Chest discomfort with associated symptoms suggests acute coronary syndrome.
Aspirin in suspected stroke is:
Type of stroke isn't known prehospitally; aspirin can worsen bleeds.
Never place anything in the mouth of a seizing person because:
The 'swallowing your tongue' myth is false; objects cause injury.
After the seizure ends, place the person in:
Postictal patients benefit from recovery position to keep airway clear.
Call 9-1-1 for a seizure if:
Prolonged, repeated, water-related, or first-time seizures need EMS.
Signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) include:
Adrenergic symptoms and altered mentation occur with low blood sugar.
After giving naloxone, place an unresponsive patient who is breathing in:
Recovery position protects the airway. The correct answer is "The recovery position". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns
Eye exposure to chemicals:
Prolonged irrigation reduces injury. The correct answer is "Flush continuously with clean water for at least 15–20 minutes". This reflects the accepted standard
An opioid overdose is recognized by:
Classic triad: miosis, hypoventilation, depressed LOC. The correct answer is "Pinpoint pupils, slow/absent breathing, decreased responsiveness". This reflects t
For inhaled poison (chemical fumes) the FIRST priority is:
Don't become a second victim; assess scene safety. The correct answer is "Rescuer safety — move the victim to fresh air only if safe". This reflects the accepte
First aid for opioid overdose includes:
Administer naloxone, support ventilation, EMS. The correct answer is "Call 9-1-1, give naloxone if available, support breathing, place in recovery position". Th
First action for CO poisoning is:
Remove from source first, then assess and call EMS. The correct answer is "Move the victim to fresh air and call EMS". This reflects the accepted standard for t
Naloxone (Narcan) is given:
Intranasal/IM; repeat dosing while EMS arrives. The correct answer is "Intranasally or intramuscularly, repeat if no response in 2–3 minutes". This reflects the
After naloxone the patient may:
Opioids may outlast naloxone; observe and transport. The correct answer is "Become alert but then re-sedate as the dose wears off — keep monitoring". This refle
Activated charcoal is:
Charcoal use is selective and provider-administered. The correct answer is "A treatment given by medical providers for some ingestions, not routine first aid".
Skin contact with toxic chemical: remove contaminated clothing and:
Decontaminate with water; remove the source. The correct answer is "Flush skin with copious water for at least 15–20 minutes". This reflects the accepted standa
For two-rescuer CPR on an infant or child, the compression-to-ventilation ratio is:
Two-rescuer infant/child CPR uses a 15:2 ratio. The correct answer is "15:2". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and aligns with th
A 30-year-old has a seizure on the floor of a restaurant lasting 4 minutes. After it stops he is drowsy. Yo…
Postictal care; consider EMS based on duration/history. The correct answer is "Place in recovery position, monitor airway, call 9-1-1 if first seizure or it las
A child with asthma has not improved after two puffs of her inhaler and is struggling to breathe. You should:
Severe attack — escalate to EMS. The correct answer is "Call 9-1-1 and have her continue using the inhaler as directed". This reflects the accepted standard for
A construction worker is unresponsive after touching a live wire. The power is still on. You should:
Scene safety: ensure power off before contact. The correct answer is "Keep clear, ensure the power is shut off, then assess". This reflects the accepted standar
A cyclist crashed with a possible neck injury but is breathing. You should:
Spinal precautions and EMS. The correct answer is "Manually stabilize the head, keep him still, call EMS". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid
A pregnant woman near term collapses unresponsive without breathing. You should:
CPR with LUD relieves aortocaval compression. The correct answer is "Start CPR with manual left uterine displacement and call 9-1-1". This reflects the accepted
A worker with chest pain and a known history of angina has used his nitroglycerin without relief. You should:
Persistent pain despite nitro suggests MI. The correct answer is "Call 9-1-1 — unrelieved angina may be an MI". This reflects the accepted standard for the firs
A worker fell from a ladder and now has obvious deformity of the lower leg. You should:
Splint as found; CSM checks. The correct answer is "Splint the leg in the position found, immobilize joint above and below, call EMS". This reflects the accepte
A pedestrian is hit by a car and shows pale skin, rapid pulse, and confusion without obvious bleeding. You …
Suspect internal bleeding; treat for shock. The correct answer is "Suspect internal bleeding/shock, keep them flat and warm, call EMS". This reflects the accept
A person is found unresponsive in a closed garage with the car running. You should:
Suspect CO — ventilate and remove from source. The correct answer is "Open the doors/windows, move them to fresh air if safe, call 9-1-1". This reflects the acc
A child swallows a bottle of pills found on the floor. You should:
Poison Control directs management based on substance. The correct answer is "Call Poison Control immediately and follow their advice". This reflects the accepte
A 55-year-old man clutches his chest while shoveling snow and says it hurts. He is sweaty and pale. You sho…
Treat as ACS — call EMS, rest, aspirin if appropriate. The correct answer is "Call 9-1-1, have him stop and rest in a comfortable position, give chewed aspirin
A motorcyclist is found unresponsive with helmet on. You should:
Helmet removal is risky and only when necessary. The correct answer is "Leave the helmet on unless it interferes with airway management; manually stabilize the
A child is found with hot dry skin and is unresponsive on a hot day. You should:
Heat stroke kills quickly; cool aggressively. The correct answer is "Treat as heat stroke — aggressive cooling and call 9-1-1". This reflects the accepted stand
A senior at home is found confused, sweaty and shaky; she has diabetes. You should:
Symptomatic hypoglycemia — oral glucose. The correct answer is "Give a fast-acting sugar if she can swallow safely, then monitor". This reflects the accepted st
A patient has a deep cut on the leg with an embedded knife. You should:
Don't remove embedded objects. The correct answer is "Stabilize the knife, control bleeding around it, call EMS". This reflects the accepted standard for the fi
An adult is found unresponsive but breathing normally with no spinal injury. You should:
Recovery position protects the airway. The correct answer is "Place in the recovery position and call 9-1-1". This reflects the accepted standard for the firsta
A child is found unresponsive in a backyard pool. After removal you should:
Drowning resuscitation emphasizes breaths first if trained. The correct answer is "Begin CPR with 30:2 (starting with 5 initial breaths if trained), call 9-1-1"
A worker collapses in a hot warehouse with hot, dry skin and confusion. You should:
Aggressive cooling is life-saving. The correct answer is "Treat as heat stroke: call EMS and aggressively cool". This reflects the accepted standard for the fir
A patient with a nosebleed leans back and swallows blood. The correct action is:
Lean forward, pinch — avoid swallowing blood. The correct answer is "Lean forward and pinch the soft part of the nose for 10–15 minutes". This reflects the acce
A worker spills strong acid on his arm. You should:
Remove the chemical and continuously flush with water. The correct answer is "Remove contaminated clothing and flush the skin with copious water for 20+ minutes
A skier is hypothermic and shivering. You should:
Passive rewarming and gentle handling. The correct answer is "Move to a warm place, remove wet clothing, wrap in dry insulation, warm sweet drinks if alert". Th
A teenager develops hives, wheezing and a swollen tongue 10 minutes after eating peanuts. You should:
Anaphylaxis — IM epinephrine and EMS. The correct answer is "Use his EpiPen in the outer thigh and call 9-1-1". This reflects the accepted standard for the firs
A senior trips and bumps his head, then becomes confused 30 minutes later. You should:
Late deterioration after head injury suggests bleeding. The correct answer is "Call EMS — possible intracranial bleeding". This reflects the accepted standard f
You find a 70-year-old woman with sudden facial droop and slurred speech. You should:
FAST positive — call 9-1-1 and record onset time. The correct answer is "Call 9-1-1 immediately and note onset time". This reflects the accepted standard for th
A person collapses in a club bathroom with pinpoint pupils and slow breathing. You should:
Suspected opioid overdose — naloxone and ventilation. The correct answer is "Call 9-1-1, give naloxone if available, support breathing". This reflects the accep
A worker has a long laceration on the forearm with bright red spurting blood. After direct pressure for sev…
Uncontrolled limb hemorrhage — tourniquet. The correct answer is "Apply a tourniquet high on the arm and call EMS". This reflects the accepted standard for the
A diner suddenly clutches his throat, cannot speak, and is panicked. You should:
Severe choking — immediate intervention. The correct answer is "Confirm choking, ask 'are you choking?', start back blows and abdominal thrusts". This reflects
Secondary assessment includes:
Detailed assessment after primary survey is complete. The correct answer is "Head-to-toe exam, vital signs, SAMPLE history". This reflects the accepted standard
Good Samaritan laws generally protect a first aider who:
Protection requires reasonable care within training. The correct answer is "Acts in good faith, within their training, without expectation of reward". This refl
SAMPLE history stands for:
Standard history mnemonic for prehospital care. The correct answer is "Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past history, Last oral intake, Events". This ref
When approaching a motor vehicle collision, scene hazards include:
Identify and mitigate hazards before approaching. The correct answer is "Traffic, fuel, fire, downed power lines, unstable vehicles". This reflects the accepted
The acronym DRABC (some traditions) refers to:
An older sequence many programs still teach. The correct answer is "Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing, Circulation". This reflects the accepted standard for t
Consent to treat a conscious adult requires:
Identify yourself, explain, obtain expressed consent. The correct answer is "Explaining who you are and what you intend to do, and obtaining agreement". This re
To check responsiveness:
Gentle stimulus and verbal challenge. The correct answer is "Tap and shout: 'Are you OK?'". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and
Personal protective equipment helps protect against:
Standard precautions reduce infection transmission. The correct answer is "Bloodborne pathogens and bodily fluids". This reflects the accepted standard for the
If you find a victim face-down and unresponsive who needs CPR:
Log-roll maintaining spinal alignment to a supine position. The correct answer is "Carefully roll as a unit (log-roll) to a face-up position". This reflects the
If a victim refuses care, you should:
Respect autonomy but document and call EMS to assess. The correct answer is "Document the refusal, explain risks, and call EMS to assess". This reflects the acc
When transferring care to EMS provide:
Structured handover improves continuity. The correct answer is "A concise handover: chief complaint, history, vitals, treatments, response". This reflects the a
The first action at any emergency is to:
Scene safety prevents rescuer becoming a casualty. The correct answer is "Ensure scene safety". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment
Triage in a mass-casualty incident prioritizes:
Resource allocation favors those most likely to benefit. The correct answer is "Those with the best chance of survival with limited resources". This reflects th
Disability in ABCDE refers to:
Quick neuro check using AVPU or GCS. The correct answer is "Neurologic assessment (LOC, AVPU)". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment
Vital signs to monitor include:
Standard vital signs help trend the patient's status. The correct answer is "Pulse, breathing, skin colour/temperature, level of consciousness". This reflects t
If the scene is unsafe you should:
Don't enter unsafe scenes; call for specialized help. The correct answer is "Stay back and call EMS — do not enter". This reflects the accepted standard for the
Reassess vital signs every:
Frequency depends on stability. The correct answer is "5 minutes for unstable, 15 minutes for stable". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid asse
Always introduce yourself to a conscious patient because:
Introduction is part of ethical and effective care. The correct answer is "It establishes rapport and consent". This reflects the accepted standard for the firs
AVPU stands for:
Rapid level-of-consciousness scale. The correct answer is "Alert, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment an
Check breathing by:
Brief look/listen/feel ≤10 seconds. The correct answer is "Looking for chest rise, listening for breath sounds, feeling for air ≤10 seconds". This reflects the
Mechanism of injury (MOI) helps you:
MOI guides assessment and index of suspicion. The correct answer is "Anticipate the type and severity of injuries". This reflects the accepted standard for the
Scene safety includes assessing for:
Identify dangers before approaching. The correct answer is "Violence, hazards (fire/electricity/chemicals), unsafe surfaces, weather". This reflects the accepte
Primary assessment focuses on:
ABCDE is the primary survey framework. The correct answer is "Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure (ABCDE)". This reflects the accepted standard
If multiple victims are at a scene, you should:
Priority based on severity, not who is loudest. The correct answer is "Triage and treat the most life-threatening conditions first". This reflects the accepted
A minor with a life-threatening condition can be treated under:
Provide emergency care under implied consent. The correct answer is "Implied consent if a parent/guardian is unavailable". This reflects the accepted standard f
For severe scalp bleeding:
Scalp bleeds heavily but is controlled with firm pressure. The correct answer is "Apply direct pressure with thick dressing". This reflects the accepted standar
Whenever in doubt about a fracture or sprain:
Better to splint and have it evaluated. The correct answer is "Splint and seek medical care". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment an
First aid for a nosebleed after trauma includes:
Standard nosebleed care; consider underlying fracture. The correct answer is "Lean forward, pinch the soft part of the nose for 10–15 minutes". This reflects th
Head injury warning signs include:
These are red flags requiring EMS evaluation. The correct answer is "Loss of consciousness, vomiting, severe headache, unequal pupils, seizure". This reflects t
A splint should immobilize:
Stabilize joints proximal and distal to the injury. The correct answer is "The joints above and below the injury". This reflects the accepted standard for the f
A strain is an injury to:
Strains are muscle/tendon overstretch or tears. The correct answer is "A muscle or tendon". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and
A 'flail chest' (multiple rib fractures, paradoxical movement) needs:
Avoid restricting breathing; transport for definitive care. The correct answer is "EMS, positioning of comfort, supplemental oxygen if available". This reflects
RICE for sprains stands for:
Mnemonic for soft-tissue injury care. The correct answer is "Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment
Before and after splinting, check:
Assess CSM to detect compromised circulation or nerve. The correct answer is "Circulation, sensation, and movement distal to the injury". This reflects the acce
Signs of a fracture include:
Pain, deformity, and loss of function suggest fracture. The correct answer is "Pain, swelling, deformity, inability to use the limb". This reflects the accepted
After RICE for an ankle sprain, prolonged or severe pain warrants:
Persistent or severe pain may indicate fracture. The correct answer is "Medical evaluation". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessment and
A dislocation should be:
Dislocations require x-ray and trained reduction. The correct answer is "Immobilized as found and transported — do not attempt to reduce". This reflects the acc
A sprain is an injury to:
Sprains involve ligaments; strains involve muscles/tendons. The correct answer is "A ligament (joint)". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid ass
A swollen, deformed ankle that cannot bear weight may be:
Cannot reliably differentiate without imaging. The correct answer is "A sprain or fracture — splint and evaluate". This reflects the accepted standard for the f
For suspected spinal injury you should:
Manual in-line stabilization until c-spine immobilization. The correct answer is "Manually stabilize the head in line with the body until EMS arrives". This ref
Cold packs for soft-tissue injury should be applied:
Protect skin and limit duration to avoid frostbite. The correct answer is "With a cloth barrier for 15–20 minutes at a time". This reflects the accepted standar
A penetrating injury to the abdomen with protruding organs (evisceration) should be:
Moisten the dressing to prevent tissue desiccation. The correct answer is "Covered with a moist sterile dressing — do not push organs back". This reflects the a
The brain begins to suffer permanent damage after how long without oxygen?
Irreversible brain damage starts after 4–6 minutes without oxygen — the reason CPR matters.
What does the acronym 'DRSABCD' help responders remember?
DRSABCD = Danger, Response, Send for help, Airway, Breathing, CPR, Defibrillation — the primary survey.
Under Canada's Good Samaritan laws, a bystander who provides reasonable first aid in good faith is generally:
Good Samaritan legislation in every province/territory protects bystanders who act in good faith, within training, and without gross negligence.
Before touching a responsive adult to provide first aid, you must:
Consent (expressed or implied) is required before treating a responsive adult.
When an adult is unresponsive, consent to provide first aid is:
When a person is unresponsive, consent is implied — a reasonable person would want help.
How often should a Canadian Standard First Aid & CPR/AED certification be renewed?
Standard First Aid & CPR/AED certificates in Canada are valid for 3 years.
What does the 'P' in the SAMPLE history stand for?
SAMPLE = Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, Events.
Which precaution best reduces the risk of disease transmission during first aid?
Universal precautions: hand hygiene plus barrier devices (gloves and a one-way pocket mask).
When should you NOT move an injured person?
Do not move an injured person unless the scene becomes unsafe or movement is required to provide life-saving care.
If you must move a person alone in an emergency, the safest technique is:
Emergency drags (clothes drag, shoulder drag, ankle drag) keep the body in a straight line and protect the spine.
A person is breathing but unresponsive, with no suspected spinal injury. You should place them in:
The recovery (lateral) position keeps the airway open and lets fluids drain.
What is the universal sign for choking?
Hands clutched at the throat is the internationally recognized choking signal.
For a responsive choking adult who CAN cough forcefully, you should:
Effective coughing means the airway is partially open — encourage coughing and monitor for deterioration.
When transferring care to EMS, you should report (handover):
Hand-over should include mechanism of injury/illness, signs and symptoms, care given, and any changes in condition.
Children aged 1 year to puberty are considered which age group for first aid?
First aid age groups: infant = under 1, child = 1 year to puberty, adult = puberty and older.
When should a single rescuer stop CPR?
Stop CPR only when: scene becomes unsafe, EMS arrives, AED is analyzing/shocking, signs of life return, or you physically cannot continue.
After helping with a serious incident, what self-care step is recommended?
Critical incident stress is normal — debriefing, peer or professional support is encouraged.
First aiders should document an incident in writing because:
Written incident records help EMS, employers and any legal/insurance follow-up.
If a person refuses your help, you should:
A responsive adult may refuse care. Respect refusal, stay nearby, and call EMS if condition worsens.
What is the recommended action if you suspect a spinal injury?
Suspected spinal injury: minimize movement, support head/neck in line with the body, call EMS.
Where do you place your hands for chest compressions on an adult?
Heel of the hand on the lower half of the sternum, in the centre of the chest.
What is the correct compression technique for an infant by a single rescuer?
Single-rescuer infant CPR: two fingers on the lower half of the sternum, just below the nipple line.
When should you allow the chest to fully recoil during CPR?
Full chest recoil after every compression lets the heart refill — critical for perfusion.
Before the AED analyzes the heart rhythm, you must:
Stand clear and ensure no one touches the patient during AED analysis.
Where are the standard adult AED pads placed?
Standard placement: upper right chest below the clavicle and lower left ribcage just below the armpit.
If a child under 8 needs AED use and pediatric pads are not available, you should:
If pediatric pads aren't available, use adult pads — front-and-back if needed to avoid pad contact.
After an AED delivers a shock, what is the next step?
Immediately resume CPR with compressions after a shock; the AED will reanalyze in 2 minutes.
For a responsive choking adult, abdominal thrusts (Heimlich) are delivered:
Make a fist just above the navel and well below the xiphoid; press inward and upward.
For a choking infant who is responsive, the recommended technique is:
Responsive choking infant: 5 back blows then 5 chest thrusts; repeat until cleared or unresponsive.
What is the first action for severe external bleeding?
Direct pressure with a clean dressing controls most bleeding; add pressure or use a tourniquet if it fails.
When is a commercial tourniquet appropriate?
Tourniquets are used for life-threatening limb hemorrhage when direct pressure fails or is impractical.
Best position for a person showing signs of shock (no spinal injury, conscious):
Lay the person flat, keep them warm, treat the cause, and call EMS. Routine leg elevation is no longer recommended.
Which of the following is a sign of a heart attack?
Classic signs: crushing/pressure-like chest pain, radiation to arm/jaw/back, shortness of breath, sweating, nausea.
While waiting for EMS, a conscious adult having a suspected heart attack with no allergy should be:
If not allergic and not contraindicated, encourage chewing one aspirin. Keep them calm and seated.
The FAST acronym for stroke stands for:
FAST = Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call 9-1-1.
Which is a symptom of anaphylaxis?
Anaphylaxis is a multi-system, life-threatening reaction: breathing difficulty, airway swelling, hives, hypotension.
What is the first-line emergency treatment for severe anaphylaxis?
Epinephrine auto-injector IM into the outer mid-thigh is first-line for anaphylaxis. Call 9-1-1.
During a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, you should:
Do not restrain or put anything in the mouth. Protect head, clear hazards, time the seizure, recovery position after.
When should you call 9-1-1 for a seizure?
Call EMS for: seizure > 5 min, repeated seizures without recovery, first seizure, water/injury, pregnant/diabetic, breathing problems after.
What is the recommended treatment for a nosebleed (epistaxis)?
Lean forward (prevents blood swallowing) and pinch the soft part of the nose for ~10 min without releasing.
Heat stroke is recognized by: (alternate scenario)
Heat stroke = hot skin (often but not always dry), altered LOC, high core temperature; life-threatening — cool aggressively and call 9-1-1. This variant tests t
An open chest wound that bubbles or sucks air should be treated by:
Open ('sucking') chest wound: vented chest seal or three-sided dressing; watch for tension pneumothorax — lift seal if it occurs.
An adult is found unresponsive with no normal breathing and no pulse. The very next action by a single resc…
Adult cardiac arrest by a single rescuer: start chest compressions immediately. Use AED as soon as available.
What is the FIRST step when you arrive at the scene of an emergency?
Scene safety always comes first. If the scene isn't safe, you become a second victim.
After confirming the scene is safe and the person is unresponsive, what should you do next?
After checking responsiveness, activate EMS and request an AED before starting CPR.
After using gloves and pocket masks at a scene, contaminated PPE should be:
Contaminated single-use PPE is biohazard waste and must be disposed of in a designated bag/container.
A DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) order in Canada means:
A valid DNR directs responders not to start CPR or advanced resuscitation. Other comfort care and first aid can still be provided.
Personal protective equipment (PPE) for routine first aid usually includes:
Basic PPE: disposable gloves, eye protection when splash risk exists, and a one-way pocket mask.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for one-rescuer adult CPR?
30 compressions to 2 ventilations for one-rescuer adult CPR.
What is the FIRST step in using an AED?
Power on the AED first — it will tell you exactly what to do.
After using an EpiPen, you should:
Epinephrine wears off. Always call 9-1-1; biphasic reactions can occur hours later.
For a conscious diabetic patient with low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) who can swallow, you should:
Conscious hypoglycemia: give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate (glucose tablets, juice, regular pop).
Signs of hypothermia include:
Hypothermia: shivering (until it stops), pale/cool skin, confusion, slurred speech, slow pulse and breathing.
What is the agonal breathing you may see in cardiac arrest?
Agonal gasps are not effective breathing — treat as cardiac arrest and start CPR.
At what depth should chest compressions be delivered on an adult?
Adult compressions: at least 5 cm (2 in) and no more than 6 cm deep.
What does AED stand for?
AED = Automated External Defibrillator. The correct answer is "Automated External Defibrillator". This reflects the accepted standard for the firstaid assessmen
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